Magnetic Properties of Matter
A short bar magnet placed with its axis at $30^{\circ}$ with an external field of 800 Gauss, experiences a torque of $0.016 \mathrm{~N} . \mathrm{m}$. The work done in moving it from most stable to most unstable position is $\alpha \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~J}$. The value of $\alpha$ is $\_\_\_\_$ .
Explanation:

When a magnetic dipole like a bar magnet is placed in a magnetic field (B) at an angle ( $\theta$ ), it experiences a torque.
$ \tau=\mathrm{M} \mathrm{~B} \sin \theta $
Where, $\mathrm{M}=$ magnetic moment of the magnet, $\mathrm{B}=$ magnetic field strength, $\theta=$ Angle between the magnet's axis and the field.
The magnetic field is given in Gauss. We must convert it to the standard SI unit, Tesla (T).
1 Tesla $=10000$ Gauss $\left(10^4 \mathrm{G}\right)$
So, $\mathrm{B}=800$ Gauss $=800 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~T}=0.08 \mathrm{~T}$
Using $\tau=\mathrm{MB} \sin \theta$ :
$ 0.016=M \times(0.08) \times \sin \left(30^{\circ}\right) $
$\Rightarrow $ $0.016=\mathrm{M} \times 0.08 \times 0.5$
$\Rightarrow $ $\mathrm{M}=\frac{0.016}{0.04}$
$\Rightarrow $ $ \mathrm{M}=0.4 \mathrm{~A} \cdot \mathrm{~m}^2 $
The potential energy of the magnetic dipole is given as $\mathrm{U}=-\mathrm{MB} \cos \theta$
The magnet is aligned with the magnetic field, i.e., $\theta_1=0^{\circ}$. The potential energy is minimum.
The magnet is aligned against (opposite to) the magnetic field, i.e., $\theta_2=180^{\circ}$. The potential energy is maximum.
The work done to rotate a magnet from an initial angle $\theta_1$ to a final angle $\theta_2$ is equal to the change in its potential energy.
$ \mathrm{W}=\mathrm{MB}\left(\cos \theta_1-\cos \theta_2\right) $
1. $\theta_1=0^{\circ}$
2. $\theta_2=180^{\circ}$
So, the work done is,
$ \mathrm{W}=(0.4) \times(0.08) \times\left[\cos \left(0^{\circ}\right)-\cos \left(180^{\circ}\right)\right] $
$\Rightarrow $ $\mathrm{W}=0.032 \times[1-(-1)]=0.032 \times 2$
$\Rightarrow $ $\mathrm{W}=0.064 \mathrm{~J}=64 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~J}=\alpha \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~J}$
$\Rightarrow $ $\alpha=64$
Two identical small bar magnets each of dipole moment $3 \sqrt{5} \mathrm{~J} / \mathrm{T}$ are placed at a center to center separation of 10 cm , with their axes perpendicular to each other as shown in figure. The value of magnetic field at the point P midway between the magnets is $\alpha \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~T}$. The value of $\alpha$ is $\_\_\_\_$
$ \left(\mu_0=4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \mathrm{Tm} / \mathrm{A}\right) $
The coercivity of a magnet is $5 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~A} / \mathrm{m}$. The amount of current required to be passed in a solenoid of length $30 \mathrm{~cm}$ and the number of turns 150, so that the magnet gets demagnetised when inside the solenoid is ________ A.
Explanation:
Coercivity is a measure of the resistance of a ferromagnetic material to becoming demagnetized. It is defined as the intensity of the applied magnetic field required to reduce the magnetization of a material to zero after the magnetization of the sample has been driven to saturation. In this case, coercivity $H_c$ is given to be $5 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~A/m}$.
The relationship between the magnetic field $H$ inside a solenoid and the current $I$ passed through it is given by the formula:
$H = \frac{N \cdot I}{L}$
where:
- $H$ is the magnetic field strength inside the solenoid in amperes per meter (A/m),
- $N$ is the total number of turns of wire,
- $I$ is the current in amperes (A), and
- $L$ is the length of the solenoid in meters (m).
Given that the number of turns of the solenoid $N = 150$ and the length of the solenoid $L = 30 \, \text{cm} = 0.3 \, \text{m}$, we can rearrange the formula to solve for $I$:
$I = \frac{H \cdot L}{N}$
Substituting the given values:
$I = \frac{(5 \times 10^3) \times 0.3}{150}$
Simplifying, we get:
$I = \frac{1500}{150}$
$I = 10 \, \text{A}$
Therefore, the amount of current required to be passed in the solenoid for demagnetizing the magnet when inside the solenoid is 10 A.
The horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at a place is $3.5 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~T}$. A very long straight conductor carrying current of $\sqrt{2} \mathrm{~A}$ in the direction from South east to North West is placed. The force per unit length experienced by the conductor is __________ $\times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}$.
Explanation:
$\begin{aligned} & B_H=3.5 \times 10^{-5} T \\ & F=i \ell B \sin \theta, \quad \mathrm{i}=\sqrt{2} \mathrm{~A} \\ & \frac{F}{\ell}=i B \sin \theta=\sqrt{2} \times 3.5 \times 10^{-5} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \\ & =35 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m} \end{aligned}$
The magnetic potential due to a magnetic dipole at a point on its axis situated at a distance of $20 \mathrm{~cm}$ from its center is $1.5 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~T} \mathrm{~m}$. The magnetic moment of the dipole is _________ $A \mathrm{~m}^2$. (Given : $\frac{\mu_o}{4 \pi}=10^{-7} \mathrm{Tm} A^{-1}$ )
Explanation:
$\begin{aligned} & \mathrm{V}=\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{r}^2} \\ & \Rightarrow 1.5 \times 10^{-5}=10^{-7} \times \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\left(20 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2} \\ & \Rightarrow \mathrm{M}=\frac{1.5 \times 10^{-5} \times 20 \times 20 \times 10^{-4}}{10^{-7}} \\ & \mathrm{M}=1.5 \times 4=6 \end{aligned}$
A compass needle oscillates 20 times per minute at a place where the dip is $30^{\circ}$ and 30 times per minute where the dip is $60^{\circ}$. The ratio of total magnetic field due to the earth at two places respectively is $\frac{4}{\sqrt{x}}$. The value of $x$ is
Explanation:
The current required to be passed through a solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns in order of demagnetise a bar magnet of magnetic intensity $2.4\times10^3~Am^{-1}$ is ___________ A.
Explanation:
We know that the magnetizing field (H) inside a solenoid is given by the formula :
$ H = \frac{N \cdot I}{L} $
where (N) is the number of turns, (I) is the current in Amperes, and (L) is the length of the solenoid in meters.
To demagnetize a bar magnet that has a magnetic intensity (H) of ($2.4 \times 10^3 \, \text{Am}^{-1}$), you need to create a magnetizing field in the solenoid that is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.
Given:
- ($H = 2.4 \times 10^3 \, \text{Am}^{-1}$)
- (N = 60) turns
- ($L = 15 \, \text{cm} = 0.15 \, \text{m}$) (since $(1\, \text{m} = 100 \, \text{cm})$)
You can rearrange the formula for (H) to solve for (I) :
$ I = \frac{H \cdot L}{N} $
Substituting the given values, you get :
$ I = \frac{(2.4 \times 10^3 \, \text{Am}^{-1}) \cdot 0.15 \, \text{m}}{60} $
$ I = 6 \, \text{Amperes} $
So, the current required to be passed through the solenoid to demagnetize the bar magnet is (6 $\, \text{A}$).
The magnetic intensity at the center of a long current carrying solenoid is found to be $1.6 \times 10^{3} \mathrm{Am}^{-1}$. If the number of turns is 8 per cm, then the current flowing through the solenoid is __________ A.
Explanation:
In a solenoid, the magnetic field intensity ($H$) is given by the product of the number of turns per unit length ($n$) and the current ($I$) flowing through the solenoid. This can be represented mathematically as:
$H = nI$
This is actually derived from Ampere's law applied to the special case of a solenoid, where the magnetic field is uniform and directed along the axis of the solenoid.
If we rearrange this equation to solve for the current ($I$), we get:
$I = \frac{H}{n}$
In this problem, we're given that the magnetic field intensity ($H$) at the center of the solenoid is $1.6 \times 10^{3} \, \text{Am}^{-1}$ and the number of turns per unit length ($n$) is 8 per cm (which is equal to $8 \times 10^{-2}$ per meter, as there are 100 cm in a meter).
Substituting these values into the equation gives:
$I = \frac{1.6 \times 10^{3} \, \text{Am}^{-1}}{8 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{turns/m}} = 2 \, \text{A}$
So, the current flowing through the solenoid is $2 \, \text{A}$.
Explanation:
B = 80 $\times$ 10$-$4 = 8 mT
Explanation:
$B = \mu .H\left( {1 + {1 \over H}} \right)$
$B = {B_0}(1 + x)$
$B - {B_0} = {B_0}x$
${{B - {B_0}} \over {{B_0}}} = x$
${{B - {B_0}} \over {{B_0}}} \times 100 = 100x$
$ = 2.2 \times {10^{ - 3}} = {{22} \over {{{10}^4}}}$