Question 1: Palette 1/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

$ \text { Match List I with List II: } $

$ \text { List-I } $		$ \text { List-II } $
A.	Genetically modified organism	I.	Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B.	Thermostable DNA polymerase	II.	Bt cotton
C.	Ti plasmid	III.	Thermus aquaticus
D.	pBR322	IV.	Escherichia coli

A

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

B

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

C

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

D

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 2: Palette 2/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction :

A

Extension → Annealing → Denaturation

B

Annealing → Denaturation → Extension

C

Denaturation → Extension → Annealing

D

Denaturation → Annealing → Extension

Question 3: Palette 3/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases?

A. They are called molecular scissors.

B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli.

C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites.

D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments.

E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.

Choose the answer from the options given below :

A

A and B only

B

A and E only

C

D and E only

D

C and D only

Question 4: Palette 4/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization?

A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors.

B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis.

C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light.

D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A

B and D only

B

A and B only

C

B and C only

D

A and D only

Question 5: Palette 5/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E.coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

A

Ampicillin and tetracycline

B

Ampicillin

C

Tetracycline

D

Gentamycin

Question 6: Palette 6/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is for plant cells.

Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A

$\mathbf{A}$ is not correct but $\mathbf{R}$ is correct

B

Both $\mathbf{A}$ and $\mathbf{R}$ are correct and $\mathbf{R}$ is the correct explanation of $\mathbf{A}$

C

Both $\mathbf{A}$ and $\mathbf{R}$ are correct but $\mathbf{R}$ is not the correct explanation of $\mathbf{A}$

D

$\mathbf{A}$ is correct but $\mathbf{R}$ is not correct

Question 7: Palette 7/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

$ \text { Match List-I with List-II. } $

	List-I		List-II
A.	Transformation	I.	Restriction enzyme
B.	Cloning site	II.	Transfer DNA to host bacteria
C.	Selection	III.	Replication
D.	Ori	IV.	Antibiotic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

B

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

C

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

D

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 8: Palette 8/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.

Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

B

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

C

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

D

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 9: Palette 9/115

NEET 2026 MCQ

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the $\_\_\_\_$ step.

A

ligation

B

denaturation

C

extension

D

annealing

Question 10: Palette 10/115

NEET 2025 MCQ

In the above represented plasmid, an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

A

White color colonies will be selected.

B

Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

C

Using ampicillin & tetracycline containing medium plate.

D

Blue color colonies will be selected.

Question 11: Palette 11/115

NEET 2025 MCQ

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

A

$2 n+1$

B

$2 \mathrm{~N}^2$

C

$\mathrm{N}^2$

D

$2^n$

Question 12: Palette 12/115

NEET 2025 MCQ

Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.

A

D

B

c

C

A

D

B

Question 13: Palette 13/115

NEET 2025 MCQ

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from nonrecombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.

Given below are two statements about this method:

Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.

Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

B

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

C

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

D

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 14: Palette 14/115

NEET 2025 MCQ

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of

A

Complementary tRNA

B

Non-complementary ssRNA

C

Complementary dsRNA

D

Inhibitory ssRNA

Question 15: Palette 15/115

NEET 2025 MCQ

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

A. Restriction enzymes

B. DNA ligase

C. DNA mutase

D. DNA recombinase

E. DNA polymerase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

D and E only

B

B and C only

C

C and D only

D

A and B only

Question 16: Palette 16/115

NEET 2025 MCQ

Given below are two statements:

Statement 1 : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.

Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

B

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

C

Both statement I and statement II are correct

D

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Question 17: Palette 17/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The Indian Government has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research.

Statement II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

B

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

C

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

D

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 18: Palette 18/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Match List-I with List - II :

	List - I		List - II
(A)	Genetically engineered Human Insulin	(I)	Gene therapy
(B)	GM Cotton	(II)	E. coli
(C)	ADA Deficiency	(III)	Antigen-antibody interaction
(D)	ELISA	(IV)	Bacillus thuringiensis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

B

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

C

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

D

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 19: Palette 19/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Identify the incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis.

A

Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation

B

Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece

C

Fragment of DNA moves toward anode

D

Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments

Question 20: Palette 20/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA respectively with:

A

Hind II, Hind II

B

Hind II, Alu I

C

Hind II, EcoR I

D

Hind II, BamHI

Question 21: Palette 21/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt cotton kills the pest by:

A

Creating pores in the midgut

B

Damaging the respiratory system

C

Degenerating the nervous system

D

Altering the pH of body fluids

Question 22: Palette 22/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the tetracycline resistance (tet$^{\mathrm{R}}$) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector.

A

Bam HI and Sal I

B

Sal I and Pst I

C

Pst I and Pvu I

D

Pvu I and Bam HI

Question 23: Palette 23/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Which of the following are correct about EcoRI?

A. Cut the DNA with blunt end

B. Cut the DNA with sticky end

C. Recognise a specific palindromic sequence

D. Cut the DNA between the base $\mathrm{G}$ and $\mathrm{A}$ when encounters the DNA sequence 'GAATTC'

E. Exonuclease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

B, C, E only

B

A, D, E only

C

A, C, D only

D

B, C, D only

Question 24: Palette 24/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR.

A. Annealing

B. Amplification (~1 billion times)

C. Denaturation

D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and deoxynucleotides

E. Extension

Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the options given below :

A

$\mathrm{C} \rightarrow \mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{D} \rightarrow \mathrm{E} \rightarrow \mathrm{B}$

B

$\mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{E} \rightarrow \mathrm{D} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}$

C

$\mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{C} \rightarrow \mathrm{E} \rightarrow \mathrm{D} \rightarrow \mathrm{B}$

D

$\mathrm{D} \rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{E} \rightarrow \mathrm{C} \rightarrow \mathrm{A}$

Question 25: Palette 25/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

A

8 bp

B

6 bp

C

4 bp

D

10 bp

Question 26: Palette 26/115

NEET 2024 MCQ

The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

A

Tumour inhibiting plasmid

B

Tumor independent plasmid

C

Tumor inducing plasmid

D

Temperature independent plasmid

Question 27: Palette 27/115

NEET 2023 MCQ

Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was isolated from :

A

Thermus aquaticus

B

Escherichia coli

C

Agrobacterium tumifaciens

D

Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 28: Palette 28/115

NEET 2023 MCQ

Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site will result in loss of tetracyclin resistance of pBR322 :

A

Pst I

B

Pvu I

C

EcoR I

D

BamH I

Question 29: Palette 29/115

NEET 2023 MCQ

Match List I with List II.

	List - I		List - II
(A)	Kanamycin	(I)	Delivers genes into animal cells
(B)	ClaI	(II)	Selectable marker
(C)	Disarmed retroviruses	(III)	Restriction site
(D)	Kanamycin $^\mathrm{R}$gene	(IV)	Antibiotic resistance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A

(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

B

(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

C

(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

D

(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Question 30: Palette 30/115

NEET 2023 MCQ

Which of the following is not a cloning vector?

A

YAC

B

pBR322

C

Probe

D

BAC

Question 31: Palette 31/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : When a particular restriction enzyme cuts strand of DNA, overhanging stretches or sticky ends are formed.

Reason (R) : Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of palindromic site.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

B

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

C

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

D

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Question 32: Palette 32/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Separation of DNA fragments is done by a technique known as

A

Gel electrophoresis

B

Polymerase Chain Reaction

C

Recombinant technology

D

Southern blotting

Question 33: Palette 33/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating genetic material from plant cells and enzyme (b) for isolating genetic material from fungus. Choose the correct pair of options from the following :

A

(a) Cellulase (b) Lipase

B

(a) Cellulase (b) Protease

C

(a) Cellulase (b) Chitinase

D

(a) Chitinase (b) Lipase

Question 34: Palette 34/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Match List-I with List-II :

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Gene gun	(i)	Replacement of a faulty gene by a normal healthy gene
(b)	Gene therapy	(ii)	Used for transfer of gene
(c)	Gene cloning	(iii)	Total DNA in the cells of an organism
(d)	Genome	(iv)	To obtain identical copies of a particular DNA molecule

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

B

(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

C

(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

D

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

Question 35: Palette 35/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics due to changes in their :

A

Nucleoid

B

Cosmids

C

Plasmids

D

Nucleus

Question 36: Palette 36/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Which of the following methods is not commonly used for introducing foreign DNA into the plant cell?

A

Bacteriophages

B

Agrobacterium mediated transformation

C

Gene gun

D

‘Disarmed pathogen’ vectors

Question 37: Palette 37/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Refer to the following statements for agarose-gel electrophoresis:

(a) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from sea-weed.

(b) The separation of DNA molecules in agarose-gel electrophoresis depends on the size of DNA.

(c) The DNA migrates from negatively-charged electrode to the positively-charged electrode

(d) The DNA migrates from positively-charged electrode to the negatively-charged electrode.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A

(b), (c) and (d) only

B

(a) and (b) only

C

(a), (b) and (c) only

D

(a), (b) and (d) only

Question 38: Palette 38/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.

Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

D

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 39: Palette 39/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

A

The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

B

The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.

C

The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.

D

Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.

Question 40: Palette 40/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.

Statement II : Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 41: Palette 41/115

NEET 2022 MCQ

Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

A

Presence of origin of replication

B

Presence of a marker gene

C

Presence of single restriction enzyme site

D

Presence of two or more recognition sites

Question 42: Palette 42/115

NEET 2021 MCQ

During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :

A

Polysaccharides

B

RNA

C

DNA

D

Histones

Question 43: Palette 43/115

NEET 2021 MCQ

Match List-I with List-II .

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Protpolast fusion	(i)	Totipotency
(b)	Plant tissue culture	(ii)	Pomato
(c)	Meristem culture	(iii)	Somaclones
(d)	Micropropagation	(iv)	Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)

B

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)

C

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

D

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

Question 44: Palette 44/115

NEET 2021 MCQ

Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

A

Detection of gene mutation

B

Molecular diagnosis

C

Gene amplification

D

Purification of isolated protein

Question 45: Palette 45/115

NEET 2021 MCQ

Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

A

Annealing, Denaturation, Extension

B

Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

C

Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

D

Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

Question 46: Palette 46/115

NEET 2021 MCQ

Plasmid pBR322 has Pst I restriction enzyme site within gene amp^R that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for $\beta$-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

A

It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability

B

It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell

C

The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce $\beta$-galactoside

D

It will lead to lysis of host cell

Question 47: Palette 47/115

NEET 2021 MCQ

During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?

A

Ligation

B

Annealing

C

Extension

D

Denaturation

Question 48: Palette 48/115

NEET 2021 MCQ

A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :

A

Poly (A) tail sequences

B

Degenerate primer sequence

C

Okazaki sequences

D

Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

Question 49: Palette 49/115

NEET 2020 MCQ

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of

A

Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

B

Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

C

Acetocarmine in bright blue light

D

Acetocarmine in UV radiation

Question 50: Palette 50/115

NEET 2020 MCQ

Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to

A

Insect predators

B

Insect pests

C

Fungal diseases

D

Plant nematodes

Question 51: Palette 51/115

NEET 2020 MCQ

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes

A

Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

B

They cut the strand of DNAat palindromic sites.

C

Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

D

They are useful in genetic engineering

Question 52: Palette 52/115

NEET 2020 MCQ

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRl is

A

5’ - GGATCC - 3’
3’ - CCTAGG - 5’

B

5’ - GAATTC - 3’
3’ - CTTAAG - 5

C

5’ - GGAACC - 3’
3’ - CCTTGG - 5’

D

5’ - CTTAAG - 3’
3’ - GAATTC - 5’

Question 53: Palette 53/115

NEET 2020 MCQ

The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed

A

Recognition site

B

Ori site

C

Selectable marker

D

Palindromic sequence

Question 54: Palette 54/115

NEET 2020 MCQ

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis	(i) Cloning vector
(b) Thermus aquaticus	(ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens	(iii) DNA polymerase
(d) Salmonella typhimurium	(iv) Cry proteins

Select the correct option from the following:

A

(A) $ \to $ (iii), (B) $ \to $ (iv), (C) $ \to $ (i), (D) $ \to $ (ii)

B

(A) $ \to $ (ii), (B) $ \to $ (iv), (C) $ \to $ (iii), (D) $ \to $ (i)

C

(A) $ \to $ (iv), (B) $ \to $ (iii), (C) $ \to $ (i), (D) $ \to $ (ii)

D

(A) $ \to $ (iii), (B) $ \to $ (ii), (C) $ \to $ (iv), (D) $ \to $ (i)

Question 55: Palette 55/115

NEET 2020 MCQ

Choose the correct pair from the following

A

Exonucleases – Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

B

Ligases – Join the two DNA molecules

C

Polymerases – Break the DNA into fragments

D

Nucleases – Separate the two strands of DNA

Question 56: Palette 56/115

NEET 2019 MCQ

DNA precipitation out of a mixture of bimolecules can be achieved by treatment with :

A

Methanol at room temperature

B

Chilled chloroform

C

Isopropanol

D

Chilled ethanol

Question 57: Palette 57/115

NEET 2019 MCQ

Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.

A

The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand

B

The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA

C

The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA

D

The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands

Question 58: Palette 58/115

NEET 2018 MCQ

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

A

extension, denaturation, annealing

B

annealing, extension, denaturation

C

denaturation, extension, annealing

D

denaturation, annealing, extension

Question 59: Palette 59/115

NEET 2017 MCQ

DNA fragments are

A

Positively charged

B

Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size

C

Neutral

D

Negatively charged

Question 60: Palette 60/115

NEET 2017 MCQ

A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as

A

Selectable marker

B

Plasmid

C

Vector

D

Structural gene

Question 61: Palette 61/115

NEET 2017 MCQ

The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with

A

Bromophenol blue

B

Aniline blue

C

Ethidium bromide

D

Acetocarmine

Question 62: Palette 62/115

NEET 2017 MCQ

What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?

A

Positively charged fragment move to farther end

B

Negatively charged fragments do not move

C

The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

D

The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

Question 63: Palette 63/115

NEET 2017 MCQ

The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called :

A

Upstream processing

B

Bioprocessing

C

Downstream processing

D

Postproduction processing

Question 64: Palette 64/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends ?

A

Eco RV

B

Hind III

C

Xho I

D

Sal I

Question 65: Palette 65/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing ?

A

Purification

B

Expression

C

Preservation

D

Separation

Question 66: Palette 66/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for -

A

ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

B

addition of preservatives to the product

C

purification of product

D

availability of oxygen throughout the process

Question 67: Palette 67/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

A

Eco RI

B

Polymerase III

C

Ligase

D

Taq polymerase

Question 68: Palette 68/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?

A

DNA – DNA hybridization

B

Polymerase chain reaction

C

Zinc finger analysis

D

Restriction enzymes

Question 69: Palette 69/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?

A

Single-stranded

B

Transferable

C

Independent replication

D

Circular structure

Question 70: Palette 70/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease ?

A

DNase I

B

Hind II

C

RNase I

D

Protease

Question 71: Palette 71/115

NEET 2016 MCQ

The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from

A

Thermus aquaticus

B

Bacillus subtilis

C

Pseudomonas putida

D

Thiobacillus ferroxidans

Question 72: Palette 72/115

NEET 2015 MCQ

The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called -

A

Transformer

B

Template

C

Vector

D

Carrier

Question 73: Palette 73/115

NEET 2015 MCQ

The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of -

A

Restriction enzymes

B

Selectable markers

C

Probes

D

Ligases

Question 74: Palette 74/115

NEET 2014 MCQ

An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use:

A

Blotting

B

PCR

C

Electrophoresis

D

Autoradiography

Question 75: Palette 75/115

NEET 2014 MCQ

Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :

A

BAC and YAC

B

T/A Cloning Vectors

C

T− DNA

D

Expression Vectors

Question 76: Palette 76/115

NEET 2014 MCQ

Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA ?

A

Cosmid

B

Bacterial artificial chromosome

C

Yeast artificial chromosome

D

Plasmid

Question 77: Palette 77/115

NEET 2013 MCQ

During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to :

A

Break open the cell to release DNA

B

Remove proteins such as histones

C

Facilitate action of restriction enzymes

D

Precipitate DNA

Question 78: Palette 78/115

NEET 2013 MCQ

Which of the following is not corretly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme ?

A

Plant cells- Cellulase

B

Algae-Methylase

C

Fungi - Chitinase

D

Bacteria-Lysozyme

Question 79: Palette 79/115

NEET 2013 MCQ

DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :

A

Polymerase chain reaction

B

Restriction mapping

C

Electrophoresis

D

Centrifugation

Question 80: Palette 80/115

NEET 2013 MCQ

The colonies of recombinat bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of :

A

Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in recombinant bacteria

B

Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

C

Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

D

Non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase

Question 81: Palette 81/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA ?

A

5'-GAATTC-3'
3'-CTTAAG-5'

B

5'-GATACC-3'
3'-CCTAAG-5'

C

5'-CCAATG-3'
3'-GAATCC-5'

D

5'-CATTAG-3'
3'-GATAAC-5'

Question 82: Palette 82/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents ?

A

C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

B

B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98ºC separating the two DNA strands

C

A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50ºC

D

A - Annealing with two sets of primers

Question 83: Palette 83/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for -

A

DNA finger printing

B

Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

C

Disarming pathogen vectors

D

Transformation of plant cells

Question 84: Palette 84/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

A

As sequences from where replication starts

B

As selectable markers

C

To keep the cultures free of infection

D

To select healthy vectors

Question 85: Palette 85/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

For transformation, micro - particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene are made up of

A

Gold or Tungsten

B

Platinum or zinc

C

Silver or platinum

D

Silicon or platinum

Question 86: Palette 86/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

A

Probe

B

Selectable marker

C

Vector

D

Plasmid

Question 87: Palette 87/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

The figure below is the diagrammatic respesentation o the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s) ?

A

ori- original restriction enzyme

B

amp^R, tet^R-antibiotic resistance genes

C

rop-reduced osmotic pressure

D

Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers

Question 88: Palette 88/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR ?

A

It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cell

B

It remains active at high temperature

C

It serves as a selectable marker

D

It is isolated from a virus

Question 89: Palette 89/115

NEET 2012 MCQ

PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for

A

Genetic transformation

B

Genetic Fingerprinting

C

Study of enzymes

D

DNA sequencing

Question 90: Palette 90/115

NEET 2011 MCQ

Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms ?

A

Recombinant DNA techniques

B

X-ray diffraction

C

Heavier isotope labeling

D

Hybridization

Question 91: Palette 91/115

NEET 2011 MCQ

Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in :

A

Spectrophotometry

B

PCR

C

Tissue Culture

D

Gel electrophoresis

Question 92: Palette 92/115

NEET 2011 MCQ

Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it ?
5' .............. GAATTC ................ 3'
3' .............. CTTAAG ................. 5'

A

Start codon at the 5' end

B

Replication completed

C

Deletion mutation

D

Palindromic sequence of base pairs

Question 93: Palette 93/115

NEET 2011 MCQ

There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRl. What does "co" part in it stand for ?

A

colon

B

coelom

C

coenzyme

D

coli

Question 94: Palette 94/115

NEET 2010 MCQ

In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest,is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vecotr / vectors –
(A) a bacterium
(B) plasmid
(C) plasmodium
(D) bacteriophage

A

(B) and (D) only

B

(A) and (C) only

C

(A), (B) and (D) only

D

(A) only

Question 95: Palette 95/115

NEET 2010 MCQ

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which –

A

recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase

B

remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

C

restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

D

make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

Question 96: Palette 96/115

NEET 2010 MCQ

Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms ?

A

Retrovirus

B

Salmonella typhimurium

C

Rhizopus nigricans

D

Baculovirus

Question 97: Palette 97/115

NEET 2010 MCQ

DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive moleculer is called –

A

Clone

B

Probe

C

Plasmid

D

Vector

Question 98: Palette 98/115

NEET 2010 MCQ

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for –

A

Purification of the product

B

Availability of oxygen throughout the process

C

Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

D

Addition of preservatives to the product

Question 99: Palette 99/115

NEET 2010 MCQ

Which of the following are used in gene cloning ?

A

Mesosomes

B

Nucleoids

C

Lomasomes

D

Plasmids

Question 100: Palette 100/115

NEET 2009 MCQ

Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ?

A

Trichoderma harzianum

B

Meloidogyne incognita

C

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

D

Penicillium expansum

Question 101: Palette 101/115

NEET 2008 MCQ

Gel electrophoresis is used for:

A

cutting of DNA into fragments

B

separation of DNA fragments according to their size

C

construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

D

isolation of DNA molecule

Question 102: Palette 102/115

NEET 2008 MCQ

The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with:

A

Exonucleases

B

Endonucleases

C

DNA ligase

D

DNA polymerase

Question 103: Palette 103/115

NEET 2006 MCQ

Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are-

A

Diplococcus sp.and Pseudomonas sp.

B

Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage

C

Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans

D

Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 104: Palette 104/115

NEET 2006 MCQ

Restriction endonuclease -

A

Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

B

Synthesizes DNA

C

Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus

D

Cuts the DNA molecule randomly

Question 105: Palette 105/115

NEET 2004 MCQ

Restriction endonucleases :-

A

Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis

B

Are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies

C

Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism

D

Are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules

Question 106: Palette 106/115

NEET 2004 MCQ

In transgenics expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by :-

A

Enhancer

B

Promoter

C

Reporter

D

Transgene

Question 107: Palette 107/115

NEET 2003 MCQ

Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants ?

A

Xanthomonas citri

B

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

C

Bacillus coagulens

D

Clostridium septicum

Question 108: Palette 108/115

NEET 2003 MCQ

In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because : -

A

They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

B

They can be studied from the samples of fossil remains

C

Their structure is known in greater detail

D

They are small, and therefore, easy to study

Question 109: Palette 109/115

NEET 2002 MCQ

Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the discovery of : -

A

Transcriptase

B

DNA ligase

C

Primase

D

Restriction endonuclease

Question 110: Palette 110/115

NEET 2001 MCQ

In lederberg's replica plating experiment what shall be used to obtain streptomycin resistant strain : -

A

Only minimal medium

B

Complete medium and streptomycine

C

Only complete medium

D

Minimal medium and streptomycine

Question 111: Palette 111/115

NEET 2001 MCQ

A mutant strain of T4 – Bacteriophage, R-II, fails to lyse the E-Coli but when two strains RIIX and R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E.Coli. What may be the possible reason : -

A

Both strains have different cistrons

B

Both strains have simillar cistrons

C

It is not mutated

D

Bacteriophage transforms in wild

Question 112: Palette 112/115

NEET 2001 MCQ

Which of the following cut the DNA from specific places ?

A

Exonuclease

B

Alkaline phosphate

C

E.coli restriction endonuclease I

D

Ligase

Question 113: Palette 113/115

NEET 2001 MCQ

Maximum number of bases in plasmids discovered so far : -

A

500 kilo base

B

5 kilo base

C

50 kilo base

D

5000 kilo base

Question 114: Palette 114/115

NEET 2000 MCQ

Plasmid has been used as vector because :

A

Both ends show replication

B

It has antibiotic resistance gene

C

It is circular DNA which have capacity to join to eukaryotic DNA

D

It can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Question 115: Palette 115/115

NEET 2000 MCQ

The bacteria generally used for genetic engineering is :

A

Clostridium

B

Pseudomonas

C

Agrobacterium

D

Bacillus